I am writing in response to your letter of 10 September concerning a further query
Comment - The first of the highlighted sections above seems to be a little self-contradictory. If one lives in France in a owned property, and one also has assets in the UK, it would seem that though UK inheritance law can apply to the UK assets, yet still French law applies to the French property (?or not?). I think this needs further clarification. What significance is in the word 'reference'?